I want to look for a moment at Ziklag. Where is it, and why is it important that it became a holding of מלכי יהודה? We find it mentioned in נחלת יהודה:
But really it belonged to נחלת שמעון:
But what happened to בני שמעון? We never hear from them again. If they were mixed in with יהודה, why aren’t they part of the “two” tribes of the Kingdom of Judah after the split? The history is outlined in דברי הימים:
So they had their cities in Judah עד מלך דויד. We don’t know any details (the Malbim says כי במלוך דוד היתה צקלג למלכי יהודה ונגרעה מנחלת בני שמעון, connecting it to our story) , but at that time they were reduced to only 5 cities, and by the time of חזקיהו they migrated east עד למזרח הגיא, presumably east of the Aravah valley, and some south into שעיר and the Negev (the territory of עמלק). But the split, the point that they no longer were considered part of Judah, came well before that. We have a story from the time of Asa, the grandson of Rehoboam:
And after the time of חזקיהו, in the renaissance of יאשיהו, we see that שמעון was as “foreign” a territory as אפרים:
So there seems to be a backstory to David’s selection of Ziklag as his new base of operations. It is in effect his first act as מלך יהודה, to expand its territory (under Philistine suzerainty) but dispossessing the tribe of Shimon. They eventually end up pushed into territory outside the bounds of ארץ ישראל. I am not surprised that they joined the rebellion of Jeroboam and became part of the “Northern” Kingdom of Israel.
עד היום הזה
Back to our story, and the comment that היתה צקלג למלכי יהודה עד היום הזה. What does it mean to say עד היום הזה? ”Until today“? “Unto this very day”? It comes up all the time in תנ״ך (83 times according to my concordance) but when you think about it deeply, it is very unusual. The narrator in תנ״ך is always omniscient and omnipresent; there’s never a sense that he is a person talking to the reader. Meir Sternberg points out that this, as a literary technique, emphasizes the divine nature of the text; we are not meant to get a sense that there is a human author writing this in a specific time and for a specific audience. It is of course true that, after the תורה itself, נ״ך is written by divinely-inspired human beings, but the author never interposes himself into the story; there is no “I” or “now”, except in quotations. There are, to my knowledge, only three exceptions, and each requires an explanation (which is beyond our scope here). But listen to how dissonant they sound from what we would expect:
But then there’s this phrase עד היום הזה. Always the same wording, and it’s not clear how long a time period it’s talking about. If we interpret it as “until this day, the day that I the author am writing these words”, then they often make no sense:
If Moshe wrote these words, then “until now” has no meaning. And even if we want to say Joshua wrote the last few verses, then he’s writing immediately after Moshe’s death. What does it mean to say “until now”—for the past few days? We could argue that this is evidence for the Documentary Hypothesis, that the Torah was compiled centuries later with editorial insertions by the redactor, then there’s a line in יהושע that is incomprehensible:
This must have been written early, before David conquered Jerusalem. That’s consistent with חז״ל's statement that Joshua and Pinchas wrote ספר יהושע, but what late Judean author would write וישב היבוסי את בני יהודה בירושלם עד היום הזה? And throughout תנ״ך there are examples like this, where it’s hard to place the author in a time where “until the day I am writing” makes sense. So I would reframe how we look at this phrase. It’s a fixed set of words that should be taken as a whole, not read analytically. It is an idiom, that should be translated as the Radak does here:
It may be written as a statement of intent, or of prophecy, or a commandment, but it means “from then on”, not “until a specific time”.
מלכי יהודה
Still the phrase היתה צקלג למלכי יהודה עד היום הזה is very difficult. Why mention מלכי יהודה? There were no מלכי יהודה until after the kingdom split, and ספר שמואל was written well before that:
And that comes from דברי הימים explicitly:
One answer is that of the Abarbanel, that ספר שמואל was acrtually finally compiled much later:
The Nachlas Shimon (Shimon Zarchi, Poland and Israel, d. 1860), cited in the Artscroll Shmuel, proposed that נתן actually lived until after the split (some 60+ years after he is introduced) and so saying מלכי יהודה would not be inappropriate. However, this does not address why this comment is inserted here. I think that even during the reigns of David and Solomon, in a nominally united kingdom, they really were both מלכי יהודה and מלכי ישראל, similar to the official title of the British king before the Act of Union, “King of England, Scotland, France and Ireland”.
I suspect that Ziklag remained the domain of David and his descendants in their capacity as מלכי יהודה (whether we read the עד היום הזה as prophetic foreshadowing or historical retrospective). This ties into what we saw before about the history of שבט שמעון, and their loss of Ziklag. There is a subtle criticism of David here; David is acting not as king of all Israel, but as the ruler and advocate for his own tribe. The origin of the schism that would eventually destroy his kingdom are already visible here, as he begins his first role as a true leader.